1/100 probability, based off infinite trials.

asked 2013-08-03 21:27:15 +0200

anonymous user


Okay soo i was reading around on probabilities and i found a page where it talks about probabilities, 1/100 and what are the chances that the 1/100 thing occurs. I couldnt help but feel this is wrong because probabilities in general are based off an infinite amount of trials assuming that its always the best possible outcome.

Specifically, this link. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/ind...

Heres an example.

A crate has a 1% chance to have a special item. That means that according to an infinite amount of trials, and best possible outcome, 1/100 crates will have a special item in them. Even though the probability doesnt change, the best possible outcome would suggest that this would always happen in an infinite trail.

This is correct, right ? Or is there something major im missing ?

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This does not appear to be related to the [Sage mathematics software](http://sagemath.org/). Please find a way to connect this or your question may be closed as off-topic.

kcrisman gravatar imagekcrisman ( 2013-08-03 22:57:39 +0200 )edit

The Math StackExchange is more appropriate for this kind of question: http://math.stackexchange.com/

Eviatar Bach gravatar imageEviatar Bach ( 2013-08-04 00:35:36 +0200 )edit