ASKSAGE: Sage Q&A Forum - Individual question feedhttp://ask.sagemath.org/questions/Q&A Forum for SageenCopyright Sage, 2010. Some rights reserved under creative commons license.Sat, 03 Aug 2013 17:35:36 -05001/100 probability, based off infinite trials.http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/Okay soo i was reading around on probabilities and i found a page where it talks about probabilities, 1/100 and what are the chances that the 1/100 thing occurs. I couldnt help but feel this is wrong because probabilities in general are based off an infinite amount of trials assuming that its always the best possible outcome.
Specifically, this link. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080126081910AAdbGVx
Heres an example.
A crate has a 1% chance to have a special item. That means that according to an infinite amount of trials, and best possible outcome, 1/100 crates will have a special item in them. Even though the probability doesnt change, the best possible outcome would suggest that this would always happen in an infinite trail.
This is correct, right ? Or is there something major im missing ?
Sat, 03 Aug 2013 14:27:15 -0500http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/Comment by kcrisman for <p>Okay soo i was reading around on probabilities and i found a page where it talks about probabilities, 1/100 and what are the chances that the 1/100 thing occurs. I couldnt help but feel this is wrong because probabilities in general are based off an infinite amount of trials assuming that its always the best possible outcome.</p>
<p>Specifically, this link. <a href="http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080126081910AAdbGVx">http://answers.yahoo.com/question/ind...</a></p>
<p>Heres an example.</p>
<p>A crate has a 1% chance to have a special item. That means that according to an infinite amount of trials, and best possible outcome, 1/100 crates will have a special item in them. Even though the probability doesnt change, the best possible outcome would suggest that this would always happen in an infinite trail.</p>
<p>This is correct, right ? Or is there something major im missing ?</p>
http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/?comment=17192#post-id-17192This does not appear to be related to the [Sage mathematics software](http://sagemath.org/). Please find a way to connect this or your question may be closed as off-topic.Sat, 03 Aug 2013 15:57:39 -0500http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/?comment=17192#post-id-17192Comment by Eviatar Bach for <p>Okay soo i was reading around on probabilities and i found a page where it talks about probabilities, 1/100 and what are the chances that the 1/100 thing occurs. I couldnt help but feel this is wrong because probabilities in general are based off an infinite amount of trials assuming that its always the best possible outcome.</p>
<p>Specifically, this link. <a href="http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080126081910AAdbGVx">http://answers.yahoo.com/question/ind...</a></p>
<p>Heres an example.</p>
<p>A crate has a 1% chance to have a special item. That means that according to an infinite amount of trials, and best possible outcome, 1/100 crates will have a special item in them. Even though the probability doesnt change, the best possible outcome would suggest that this would always happen in an infinite trail.</p>
<p>This is correct, right ? Or is there something major im missing ?</p>
http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/?comment=17191#post-id-17191The Math StackExchange is more appropriate for this kind of question: http://math.stackexchange.com/Sat, 03 Aug 2013 17:35:36 -0500http://ask.sagemath.org/question/10411/1100-probability-based-off-infinite-trials/?comment=17191#post-id-17191