can anyone explain this: from approximation one know's that the legendre coefficients converge exponentially to zero and not to infinity! and indeed with mpmath I get a better answer: Is there an overhead happening, when I numerically evaluate large rationals or something??? Thanks in advance, maldun |

If you look at the output of you'll see that it is a massive expression with large rationals, powers of pi, etc. If For example, the lines tell you that if evaluate the expression using 500 bits of precision, it's |

Asked: **Aug 24 '10**

Seen: **553 times**

Last updated: **Aug 24 '10**

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